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20 Aug 2014

[Another One] of the Inherent Contradiction(s) of the Left

I previously wrote a piece on how Lefties are contradictory when they simuntaneously protect women's right to their bodies in Abortion debates, while refrain from the same protection in Labour Market debates. Here's another amusing contradiction:

A few months ago, during my heavy rampaging at those poor Lefties at People & Planet, I made a post about feminist economics. Since there's a major wave of socialist and feminist ideas tumbling across both my native country of Sweden and my current home, Scotland, I thought to re-introduce a special feature of the Feminist argument. Here's what I wrote about the Wage Gap:
"Wage gap. All kinds of numbers are generally presented to support this idea; women make 15% less than men, £5000 less in a year; higher in private sector (19%) than public (13%) etc, etc. What does this mean? How is this measured? The simplest of comparisons are made through dividing all income by women by the amount of women to the same ratio for men. Clearly inaccurate, because that would compare the pay of a female working minimum wage at tesco with a handsomely payed lawyer. Most studies then controll for other factors, most obviously what profession you're in. But even then, same questions arise; differences in productivity, experiences, in certain education etc. Some studies controll for more factors than others, but very few of them are conclusive in the sense that they add such tiny things as choices or personal adequacy.
Truth to be told, when more factors are accounted for (education, experience, career choice or even negotiation skills) the gap narrows into virtually nothing. There is no wage gap, there's only choices. More extensive reading here."

Also, yesterday I shared the picture below on facebook, resulting in some pretty decent discussions about related issued. Now, I'm still looking for the sources to some of these claims, such as more likely do die at work or how the 14% "more time at work" is calculated. If anyone knows, please give me a shout!



Let's Get Down to Business!

Literally, actually. So, feminists claim women earn a percentage of what men earn (77%, 95%, 85%, whatever the specific number might be, but you get the idea - it's below 1). To a superficial reader that's accurate, and nobody is actually disputing that the following calculation gives us a number less than 1: 

<Total Wages Earned by Women>
<Total Wages Earned by Men>

After giving it a moments thought, though, you realize that this calculation compares people on minimum wage with Wall Street Excecutives. Or Steve Jobs, or J.K Rowling. The rest of us are not refuting this calculation - we're just laughing at its sillyness and the conclusions drawn from it ("OMG, DISCRIMINATION IN THE WORKPLACE").

There's more to the story. You have to control for things such as location, education, productivity, presentational skills, perhaps humour, fashion or whatnot a feature employers might value in any given employee. Studies that do, generally get a smaller "Gap". As Ellen Fishbein greatly points out, though, most studies never claim that this "gap" is discrimination - their authors say it is due to measures they didn't take into consideration.

Ok, so where's the contradition here?

If, as the Lefties say, women 
a) are just as good as men at a particular task in a particular field, and 
b) are payed less on average because of gender discrimination, 

another one of their favorite claims would come into question: Profit-Maximization

If a firm, simply by substituting women for men, could save 10%, 15%, 23% on their labour costs without loosing out on productivity or output (because of a above), AND they're constantly seeking to max out profits - Why wouldn't all firms stop hiring men and substitute women for men?
They could pocket a decent profit and still lose out on nothing. 

So, if we add Profit-Maximizing to the equation, our contradiction is complete:
A) women are just as good as men at a particular task
B) women are payed less on average because of gender discrimination
C) Firms are profit-maximizing entities

The only conclusion that follows is: Women would be prefered/have higher employment in doing such a task. 
Since that is not the case, illustrated by our friends on the left, one of these premises have to go. As I explained above: if firms could have double-digit returns on substituting women for men (without losing output), and we're not seeing that happening - one of our premises are incorrent. One has to go. 

Which one is it gonna be, Lefties?

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